Accrual Tranche Question because, interest, receive, payments, concerned

noel

I was wondering if someone could explain this to me. Its from the CFA Fixed Income Textbook, page 388 at the bottom.

The accrual tranche has appeal to investors who are concerned with reinvestment risk. Since there are no coupon payments to reinvest, reinvestment risk is eliminated until all other tranches are paid off.

-> is this because the accrual tranche doesn't receive any interest payments.. so essentially no reinvestment risk.

thank you.