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Currency Forward Contract Question

Forward rate = S0/(1+rf)^t * (1+r)^t

There is quite a misunderstanding over how this figure came in.

Obviously it has been derived from:

F/(1+r)^t - S0/(1+rf)^t = 0

It is understood regarding the F/(1+r)^t being discounted since it is the future rate at expiration.

It is hard to understand that if S0 is multipled by 1/(1+rf)^t (units of foreign currency) this will give the value of units in domestic currency... which is not actually the exchange rate. So how does this part come into the equation??

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