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Reference: 2011 Schweser Portfolio Management, pg. 203 #14.
One of the assumptions of the Market Model is that firm specific events are uncorrelated across assets.
If the above is true then the Cov will always be zero - using the covariance formula for Market Model we have:
Cov for asset i and j = Beta i * Beta j* Variance for market
= Beta i * Beta j * (Correlation for i and j * std dev i * std dev j) / Beta i
So, if we subtitute zero for 'Correlation for i and j' above then the 'Cov for asset i and j' is zero.
Am I missing something? |
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