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- 2011-7-11
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- 2014-8-6
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Appreciate the reply - but the latest query isn't about the indifference between the two formulas. We've previously established that they are similar, quantitatively or otherwise. The question is a *conceptual* one - what's the reason behind re-stating the equation to formula #2 when estimating FCFE?
My take is that "...the fact that they are unable to predict the extent of their borrowings and outflow of interest way into the future (even though *assumed* target capital structure exists)..."
Anyone else able to shed a light on this please? |
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发表于 2011-7-11 19:29
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