kingstongal

Hey man. Thanks for the answer.
Im still not sure I understand the very last portion:
I get the 141,502 = Initial Cash + Cash from Short Sale  Commission … thats fine
I also get the P(2703) in the denominator as the “MV of the Marginzed Assets”
Its just the amount owed in the numerator of  2703*X that i dont understand. I know that this 2703*X is going to be paid to the owner of the shares at close. But what about the 50% margin that had to be put up with the broker? Should this be included in the calcualtion somewhere?