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Equity - Free Cash Flow Valuation

1) Why is the single stage FCF model useful for stable firms in mature industries?
2)Why is NI considered a poor proxy for FCFE?
3) Why is EBITDA poor proxy for FCFE?
4) WACC is always less than ROE…Why/How?
5) DTL is added back to NI ti compute FCFF….Why?
Thanks in advance!

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