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in fact myself used the wrong method from the very beginning.

I used Spe=S0*[f/(1-f)] and 1000000=300000*[f/(1-f)]
so I solved the fraction is 10/13
and then f=10/13=INV/POST, I get POST=13

but however, I realized later the Spe=S0*[f/(1-f)] relationship holds only when the price per share remains no change from PRE to POST.

Now from this question we can be sure during the investment, the mgmt doesn't compensate the PE investor fully with issuing more shares. they issue some shares(1000000 more), and the share price also raises.

so you have to just compute the market value i/o using the POST-PRE-INV method.

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