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tikfed

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发表于 2013-4-17 18:59 | 显示全部帖子
no. i agree it should be (p1-p0+d1)/p0. problem is how did they come up with p1?
p0/E1 = k/(r-g), however, they make it as p1/E1 = k/(r-g). which one is the correct formula?

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