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I don’t believe so as the business is being conducted on the USA on behalf of a US firm meaning the US law or the CFA code of standards (whichever is stricter) is the applicable law for this scenario. In other questions where that was an issue seemed to be when either the firm operates in the country with strict laws or the business is transacted in a country with the stricter laws but I could be wrong if someone else wants to voice their thought on this.

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