F0(T)=QF0(T)CF(T)=Future value of underlying adjusted for carry cash flows=FV0,T[S0−PVCI0,T]=FV0,T[B0(T+Y)+AI0−PVCI0,T] This equation is shown on page 296 in the book.
F0(T) = FV0,T(S0) – AIT – FVCI0,T This second equation is shown on page 297 in the book. Why there is “AIT” deference? Which one is correct? Thank you. | 
发表于 2016-11-1 09:20
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