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18. Which of the following is most likely a benefit of debt covenants for the borrower?
A. Reduction in the cost of borrowing.
B. Limitations on the company’s ability to pay dividends.
C. Restrictions on how the borrowed money may be invested.


Ans: A.
Debt covenants are restrictions imposed by the lender on the borrower to protect the lender’s position. Debt covenants can reduce default risk and thus reduce borrowing costs.


B is incorrect. This is a disadvantage of using debt covenants for the borrower.


C is incorrect. This is a disadvantage of using debt covenants for the borrower.

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17. A capital lease requires annual lease payments of $2,000 at the start of each year. Fair value of the leased equipment at inception of the lease is $10,000 and the implicit interest rate is 12 percent. If the present value of the lease payments equals the fair value of the equipment at the inception of the lease, the interest expense (in $) recorded by the lessee in the second year of the lease is closest to:
A. 960.
B. 1,104.
C. 1,200.


Ans: A.

Year

Starting Balance

Interest Expense @12%

Lease Payment

Principal Reduction

Ending Balance

1

10,000

0

2,000

2,000

8,000

2

8,000

960







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16. A company issued $2,000,000 of bonds with a 20 year maturity at 96. Seven years later, the company called the bonds at 103 when the unamortized discount was $39,000. The company would most likely report a loss of:
A. $60,000.
B. $99,000.
C. $138,000.


Ans: B.

Redemption cost

$2,060,000

$2,000,000 x 103/100

Carrying amount retired

1,961,000

$2,000,000 – $39,000

Loss on redemption

$99,000

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15.  Compared to classifying a lease as a financing lease, if a lessee reports the lease as an operating lease it will most likely result in a:
A. lower return on assets.
B. higher debt-to-equity ratio.
C. lower cash from operations.


Ans: C.
The cash from operations is lower if the lease is classified as an operating lease, because the full lease payment is shown as an operating cash outflow. If it were classified as a financing lease, only the portion of the lease payment relating to interest expense reduces the operating cash flow and the portion of the lease payment that reduces the lease liability is classified as a financing cash flow. Therefore, the lessee’s cash from operations tends to be lower under operating leases.


The following two figures summarize the difference between the effects of finance leases and operating leases on the financial statements and ratios of the lessee.
Figure 1: financial statement impact of lease accounting



Finance

Operating

Assets

Higher

Lower

Liability (current and long-term)

Higher

Lower

Net income (in the early years)

Lower

Higher

Net income (later years)

Higher

Lower

Total net income

Same

Same

EBIT (operating income)

Higher

Lower

Cash flow from operations

Higher

Lower

Cash flow from financing

Lower

Higher

Total cash flow

Same

Same

Figure 2: ratio impact of lease accounting



Finance

Operating

Current ratio (CA/CL)

Lower

Higher

Working capital (CA-CL)

Lower

Higher

Asset turnover (Revenue/TA)

Lower

Higher

Return on assets*(NI/TA)

Lower

Higher

Return on equity*(NI/SE)

Lower

Higher

Debt/ Asset

Higher

Lower

Debt/ Equity

Higher

lower

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14. A company, which prepares its financial statements in accordance with IFRS issues £5,000,000 face value ten year bonds on January 1, 2010 when interest rates are 5.50%. The bonds carry a coupon of 6.50%, with interest paid annually on December 31. The carrying value of the bonds as of December 31, 2011 will be closest to:
A. £4,695,562.
B. £5,301,000.
C. £5,316,000.


Ans: C.
The bond proceeds are determined by taking the present value of the coupon stream and terminal payment at the interest rate of 5.5%:
Proceeds
= 5,000,000 x 6.5% x PVA(10y, 5.5%) + 5,000,000 x PV(10y, 5.5%)
= 325,000 x PVA(10y, 5.5%) + 5,000,000 x PV(10y, 5.5%)
= 5,376,881
Where PVA(10y, 5.5%) is the present value interest factor for an annuity of $1 for 10years at 5.5%, and PV(10y, 5.5%) is the present value interest factor for $1 to be received in 10years when rates are 5.5%
Using the effective annual interest (EAI) rate method which is required under IFRS.

Year

Carrying Amount at Start of Year

Interest Expense
@ EAI

Interest Payment @ Coupon Rate

Amortisation of Premium

Carrying Amount @ End of Year

2010

5,376,881

295,728

325,000

29,272

5,347,609

2011

5,347,609

294,119

325,000

30,881

5,316,728

Alternatively, take the PV of the cash flows over the remaining 8 years at 5.5%

5,000,000 x 6.5% x PVA(8y, 5.5%) + 5,000,000 x PV(8y, 5.5%) = 5,316,728


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13. Given the following information about a company:

(€ millions)

2011

2010


Short-term borrowings

2,240

5,400


Current portion of long-term interest bearing debt

2,000

1,200


Long-term interest bearing debt

12,000

9,000


Total shareholders’ equity

23,250

21,175


EBIT

3,850

3,800


Interest payments

855

837


Operating lease payments

800

800


What is the most appropriate conclusion an analyst can make about the solvency of the company? Solvency has:
A. improved because the debt-to-equity ratio decreased.
B. deteriorated because the debt-to-equity ratio increased.
C. improved because the fixed charge coverage ratio increased.


Ans: A.
The debt–equity ratio decreased, thereby improving solvency; the fixed charge ratio remained the same.



2011

2010

Comments

Debt-to-equity ratio
=




=70%




=74%

Ratio decreased: Company has less financial risk; more solvent


Fixed charge coverage ratio =


=2.81


=2.81

No change in FCC ratio

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12. On 1 January 2011 the market rate of interest on a company’s bonds is 5% and it issues a bond with the following characteristics:

Face value

€50 million


Coupon rate, paid annually

4%


Time to maturity

10 years (31 December 2020)


Issue price (per €100)

92.28


If the company uses IFRS, its interest expense (in millions) in 2011 is closest to:
A. €1.846.
B. €2.307.
C. €2.386.


Ans: B.
IFRS requires the effective interest method for the amortization of bond discounts/premiums. The bond is issued for 0.9228 × €50 million = €46.140.
Interest expense
= Liability value × Market rate at issuance
= 0.05 × €46.140 = €2.307.

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11. Which of the following is most likely a reason that a lessor can offer attractive lease terms and lower cost financing to a lessee? Because the:
A. Lessor retains the tax benefits of ownership.
B. Lessor avoids reporting the liability on its balance sheet.
C. Lessee is better able to resell the asset at the end of the lease.


Ans: A.
The lessor often retains the tax benefits of ownership of the leased asset, which allows the lessor to pass those savings along to the lessee in the form of lower financing costs or other attractive terms.
B is incorrect. Lessor owns the asset.
C is incorrect. The lessee does not own the asset.

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10. On 1 January 2009, a company that prepares its financial statements according to IFRS issued bonds with the following features:
? Face value £20,000,000
? Term 5 years
? Coupon rate 6% paid annually on December 31
? Market rate at issue 4%
The company did not elect to carry the bonds at fair value. In December 2011 the market rate on similar bonds had increased to 5% and the company decided to buy back (retire) the bonds after the coupon payment on December 31. As a result, the gain on retirement reported on the 2011 statement of income is closest to:
A. £340,410.
B. £371,882.
C. £382,556.


Ans. C.
The market value of debt at retirement can be determined by discounting the future cash flows at the current market rate (5%) using a financial calculator:
FV = 20,000,000; i = 5%; PMT = 1,200,000; N = 2; Compute PV = 20,371,882
The book value after the third interest payment (two payments remaining) can be found either using a financial calculator and the market rate at the time of issue (4%) or an amortization table (shown below).
FV = 20,000,000; i = 4%; PMT = 1,200,000; N = 2; Compute PV = 20,754,438.
The bond’s initial value (required for amortization) can be found using a financial calculator:
FV = 20,000,000; i = 4%; PMT = 1,200,000; N = 5; Compute PV = 21,780,729.



Principal value at beginning of year

Interest expense 4%

Coupon 6%

Discount amortization

2009

21,780,729

871,229

1,200,000

328,771

2010

21,451,958

858,078

1,200,000

341,922

2011

21,110,036

844,401

1,200,000

355,599

Book value at end of 2011=21,110,036-355,599=20,754,438











Gain=Book value of debt – Market value
        = 20,754,438 – 20,371,882 =382,556

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9. A retail company that leases the majority of its space has:
? total assets of $4,500 million,
? total long-term debt of $2,125 million, and
? average interest rate on debt of 12%.
Note 8 to the 2011 financial statements contains the following information about the company’s future beginning of year lease commitments:
Note 8: Operating leases

Year

Millions


2012

$200


2013

200


2014

200


2015

200


2016

200


total

$1,000


After adjustment for the off-balance-sheet financing, the debt-to-total-assets ratio for the company is closest to:
A. 55%.
B. 57%.
C. 65%.


Ans: A.
The present value of the operating leases should be added to both the total debt and the total assets.
The present value of an annuity due of $200 for 5 years at 12% = $807.5.
(N = 5; I = 12; PMT = 200; Mode = Begin)
Adjusted debt to total assets = (2,125 + 807.5) ÷ (4,500 + 807.5) = 55.3%.

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