返回列表 发帖
 

2、The first step of CreditMetrics would include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) gathering yield curve data.

B) calculating the probability of default.

C) none of these.

D) calibrating the Poisson distribution.

TOP

 

The correct answer is D

The Poisson distribution is not part of CreditMetrics. The first step consists of the gathering of inputs. The gathering includes calculating many measures such as probability of default, recovery rate statistics, factor correlations and their relationships to the obligors, yield curve data, and individual exposures that are distinct from the other inputs.


TOP

 

3、Which of the following is (are) a characteristic of the KMV model?

I.           Each obligor has its own sensitivity to each of the common risk factors.

II.         The model produces a VAR measure.

III.        It includes current economic conditions.

IV.      It includes an estimate of correlation between firm values based on the correlation between observed equity values.

A) I only.

B) II and IV only.

C) II only.

D) I, II, III, and IV.

TOP

 

The correct answer is B

Statements II and IV are true. Statement I is only true for CreditRisk+. Statement II is a characteristic of CreditMetrics and the KMV models. Statement III is a weakness of all portfolio credit models. Statement IV is a characteristic and major advantage of the KMV model.


TOP

 

AIM 9: Assess the credit risks of derivatives.

1、ADC Inc. enters into a plain vanilla interest rate swap contract with Betax Inc. At the 3rd settlement date, ADC is owed $2.5 million but is unable to enforce the contract due to a technicality. This is an example of:

A) contract risk.

B) legal risk.

C) business risk.

D) credit risk.

TOP

 

The correct answer is B

Legal risk is the risk of loss due to legal or regulatory issues. Most legal risk issues are a direct result of being unable to enforce contracts.


TOP

 

2、A credit default swap does NOT hedge against which of the following risks?

A) Default risk.

B) Market.

C) Credit Deterioration.

D) Operations risk.

TOP

 

The correct answer is B

Credit default swaps hedge default risk as well as credit deterioration risk if the swaps are marked-to-market. They don’t, however, hedge market risk because the value of the swap is defined by the credit event. In addition, with regard to operations risk, the credit default swap will provide a hedge if the operational problem is serious enough.


TOP

 

3、An investor purchases 300,000 of ABC Corps bonds with an annual coupon of 8% and maturity of 5 years. The yield is 8% so the bonds are selling at par. The total notional amount of the bonds is $10,000,000. The investor hedges 80% of the position by becoming a total rate of return swap (TROR) payer. ABC’s computer system is hacked and the firm’s bonds decrease in price from $100 to $90. What is the payoff to the TROR total rate of return swap due to the increase in operations risk?

A) $3,000,000.

B) $2,100,000.

C) $2,400,000.

D) $1,700,000.

TOP

 

The correct answer is C

The loss on the investor’s bond position is $3,000,000. The investor has hedged 80% of the position, so they will receive 80% of $3,000,000 or $2,400,000.

($90-$100) x 300,000 = $3,000,000 x 80% =$2,400,000


TOP

返回列表