上一主题:[ 2009 FRM Sample Exam ] Operational and Integrated risk management Q23
下一主题:[ 2009 FRM Sample Exam ] Operational and Integrated risk management Q15
返回列表 发帖

16、The measurement of which of the following risks is least developed?

A) Credit risk.
 
B) Market risk.
 
C) Operational risk.
 
D) Business risk.

TOP

 The correct answer is C


The measurement of operational risk is the least developed of the risks facing most firms.

TOP

17、Operational risk is defined as all of the following EXCEPT:

A) risk of breakdown in normal operations.
 
B) financial risk that is not caused by market risk.
 
C) risk of default by a foreign customer.
 
D) risk of fraud.

TOP

The correct answer is C


Operational risk does not include default risk, which would be considered credit risk.

TOP

18、The risks that will have the largest impact on the capital charge for operational risk are:

A) low-frequency, low-severity risks.
 
B) high-frequency, low-severity risks.
 
C) high-frequency, high-severity risks.
 
D) low-frequency, high-severity risks.

TOP

The correct answer is D


The risks that will have the most impact on the capital charge for operational risk are the low-frequency, high-severity risks.

TOP

AIM 2: List and describe examples of top-down models for measuring operational risk.

 

1、Residual variance is an estimate of operational risk in which of the following models?

A) Connectivity models.
 
B) Multi-factor models.
 
C) Scenario analysis. 
 
D) Reliability models.

TOP

 The correct answer is B


Residual variance is the proportion of variation in the dependent variable of a regression that is left unexplained by the independent variables. A multi-factor model is a top-down approach to measuring operational risk that uses macroeconomic factors to explain a firm’s stock returns. What is left unexplained by the model is considered aggregate operational risk. Scenario analysis is a top-down approach that does not use regression analysis. Reliability and connectivity models are bottom-up approaches.

TOP

2、Which of the following models does NOT use regression analysis to measure operational risk by relating a financial variable to macroeconomic variables?

A) Multi-factor models. 
 
B) Income-based models. 
 
C) Expense-based models.
 
D) Risk-profiling models.

TOP

 The correct answer is D


Risk profiling models relate performance indicators to control indicators to identify operational weaknesses. As such, they are not in the class of top-down approaches that relate macroeconomic factors to financial variables. For example, multi-factor models regress stock returns against macroeconomic factors. The residual variance from this regression measures the unexplained variance that is attributable to operational risk. Income-based models and expenses-based models are similar in that they relate measures of income or expenses to macroeconomic factors.

TOP

返回列表
上一主题:[ 2009 FRM Sample Exam ] Operational and Integrated risk management Q23
下一主题:[ 2009 FRM Sample Exam ] Operational and Integrated risk management Q15