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The current spot rates for currency exchange are as follows: USD:THB 0.02240 and THB:AUD 23.89923. What is the AUD:USD spot cross exchange rate?
A)
1.86796.
B)
0.00094.
C)
0.53534.



The AUD:USD cross rate is calculated in the following manner:
Step 1:  Multiply the two quotes together (THB will cancel out) to obtain USD:AUD as follows: USD:THB 0.02240 × THB:AUD 23.89923 = USD:AUD 0.53534.
Step 2: Take the reciprocal of this result to obtain AUD:USD as follows: 1 / USD:AUD 0.53534 = AUD:USD 1.86796
An alternative calculation method is as follows:
Step 1: Take the reciprocal of the USD:THB quote as:  1 / USD:THB 0.02240 = THB:USD 44.64286
Step 2: Divide this result by the THB:AUD quote as: THB:USD 44.64286 / THB:AUD 23.89923 = AUD:USD 1.86796

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Given the following bid-ask spreads, calculate the DKK:CHF bid ask spread:
  • USD:CHF bid-ask 1.3096 − 1.4528
  • USDKK bid-ask 2.4365 − 2.5843
A)
1.6771 − 1.9733.
B)
0.50675 − 0.59627.
C)
0.53749 − 0.56216.



Set up a bid-ask matrix using:

USD:CHF bid-ask 1.3096 − 1.4528
USDKK bid-ask 2.4365 − 2.5843
(USD:CHF 1.3096) / (USDKK 2.5843) = DKK:CHF 0.50675
(USD:CHF 1.4528) / (USDKK 2.4365) = DKK:CHF 0.59627

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If the CAD is trading at CAD:USD 0.6403 and the GBP is trading GBP:CAD 2.5207, the GBP:USD exchange rate is:
A)
GBP:USD 0.6196.
B)
GBP:USD 3.9367.
C)
GBP:USD 1.6140.



(CAD:USD 0.643) × (GBP:CAD 2.5207) = GBP:USD 1.6140.

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If the spot exchange rate between the British pound and the U.S. dollar is USD:GBP 0.7775, and the spot exchange rate between the Canadian dollar and the British pound is GBP:CAD 1.8325, what is the CAD:USD spot cross exchange rate?
A)
1.42477.
B)
0.42428.
C)
0.70186.



First, convert USD:GBP 0.7775 to 1/0.7775 = GBP:USD 1.28617.
Then, divide GBP:USD 1.28617 by GBP:CAD 1.8325 = CAD:USD 0.70187.

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The Japanese yen is trading at USD:JPY 115.2200 and the Danish krone (DKK) is trading at DKK:JPY 16.4989. The DKK:USD exchange rate is:
A)
DKK:USD 6.9835.
B)
DKK:USD 0.1432.
C)
DKK:USD 0.5260.



The cross rate between USD and DKK is calculated in the following manner:
(JPY:USD)(DKK:JPY) = (1 / 115.2200) × 16.4989 = DKK:USD 0.1432 (the Yen cancels out)

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A Mexican dealer gives a quote of USD:MXN 8.00 - 8.10 and a London dealer quotes USD:GBP 2.00 - 2.10. What is the GBP:MXN bid and ask from the perspective of a Mexican dealer?
A)
3.81 − 4.05.
B)
3.81 − 3.86.
C)
4.00 − 4.05.



This result is determined as follows:
Step 1: Invert GBP quote.
First, we need to invert the GBP quotes to make the currency units GBP:USD. Then, when we multiply by the USD:MXN quote we will have the correct GBP:MXN units. (Remember that when you take the reciprocal of a quote, the bid becomes the ask and vice versa. So, for the bid we take the given ask)
Bid: 1.00000 / 2.10000USD:GBP = 0.47619GBP:USD
Ask: 1.00000 / 2.00000USD:GBP = 0.50000GBP:USD
Step 2: Calculate GBP:MXN bid-ask Prices.
Bid: 8.00000USD:MXN × 0.47619GBP:USD = 3.80952GBP:MXN, or 3.81GBP:MXN.
Ask: 8.10000USD:MXN × 0.50000GBP:USD = 4.05000GBP:MXN, or 4.05GBP:MXN.
Thus, the GBP:MXN bid-ask is: 3.81 - 4.05.

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Donna Ackerman, CFA, is an analyst in the currency trading department at State Bank. Ackerman is training a new hire, Fred Bos, a recent college graduate with a BA in economics.
Ackerman and Bos have the following information available to them:

Spot Rates


Bid Price

Ask Price


USD:EUR

€1.0000

€1.0015


USD:GBP

₤2.0000

₤2.0100


GBP:EUR

€0.3985

€0.4000

Ackerman and Bos are interested in pursuing profitable arbitrage opportunities for State Bank. Using the appropriate bid or ask rates for the USD:EUR and the USD:GBP, what will be the profits from triangular arbitrage, starting with $1,000?
A)
$248.46.
B)
$243.78.
C)
$245.65.



The USD:EUR and USD:GBP rates imply that the arbitrage free cross rates for the GBP:EUR are:bid = €1.000/₤2.0100 = €0.4975
ask = €1.0015/₤2.0000 = €0.5008
Since the cross rates given (€0.3985 − €0.4000) are outside of the arbitrage-free cross rates, profitable arbitrage is available. It takes too few euros to buy 1 pound, so we want our arbitrage trades to go in the direction that will cause us to sell overvalued euros for pounds at the ask rate of €0.4000.
Start with $1,000.
Use the $1,000 to buy euros ($1,000 × €1.000/$) = €1,000.
Use the €1,000 to buy sterling (€1,000 / €0.4000/₤) = ₤2,500. This step is the key.
Use the ₤2,500 to buy dollars (₤2,500 / ₤2.0100/$) = $1,243.78.
Arbitrage profit = $1,243.78 − $1,000 = $243.78.

Now, Ackerman and Bos note there is a larger observed spread for British pounds versus Euros in the spot market. Which of the following statements is least likely consistent with this situation? Consider each statement individually.
A)
The proportion of trading volume related to currency arbitrage is greater in the British pound than in the Euro.
B)
The total volume of spot market transactions is higher in the Euro than in the British pound.
C)
The British pound is more volatile than the Euro.



If the proportion of trading volume related to currency arbitrage is greater in the pound than in the Euro, we might expect pound spreads to be narrower, all else equal, because arbitrage activity tends to reduce transaction costs and increase market efficiency. The other two effects are consistent with a larger spread on the pound.

Ackerman explains to Bos that a theoretical relationship exists between forward rates and future spot rates, called the foreign exchange expectation relation. This relation suggests that:
A)
the forward rate is a biased predictor of the expected future spot rate, and there is a foreign currency risk premium present.
B)
the forward rate is an unbiased predictor of the expected future spot rate, and there is a foreign currency risk premium present.
C)
the forward rate is an unbiased predictor of the expected future spot rate, and there is no foreign currency risk premium present.



The foreign exchange expectation relation is F = E(S1), meaning that the forward rate is an unbiased predictor of the expected future spot rate. If this is the case, there is no foreign currency risk premium present in the forward rate. When the forward rate is not an unbiased predictor, this implies that some investors are willing to pay a premium to hedge foreign currency exposure.

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Suppose the AUD trades for USD 0.735802 in New York and JPY 79.3048 in Tokyo. The USD trades for JPY 109.2343 in Tokyo. Is there an arbitrage opportunity available for a currency trader?
A)
Yes, the trader can make USD 0.0135 per USD invested.
B)
No, there is no arbitrage opportunity.
C)
Yes, the trader can make USD 0.0872 per USD invested.



If the U.S. trader converts USD 1.00 for JPY 109.2343, the JPY 109.2343 can be converted to AUD 1.3774 (109.2343/79.3048). The AUD 1.3774 can then be converted to USD 1.0135 (1.3774 × 0.735802). Therefore, the profit per USD invested is 0.0135.

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Suppose the GBP trades for CHF 2.20279 in Zurich and USD 1.62699 in London. The USD trades for CHF 1.2755 in Zurich. Is there an arbitrage opportunity available for a currency trader?
A)
No, there is no arbitrage opportunity.
B)
Yes, the trader can make USD 0.06147 per USD invested.
C)
Yes, the trader can make USD 0.0930 per USD invested.



If the U.S. trader buys 1 GBP for $1.62699, that GBP can be converted to CHF 2.20279. The CHF 2.20279 can then be converted to 2.20279 × 1/1.2755 = USD 1.72700. The total profit is 1.727000 − 1.62699 = USD.10001. The profit per USD invested is 0.10001/1.62699 = 0.06147.

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Given the following quotes, what must the Euro indirect quote (EUR:USD) be in order to prevent arbitrage opportunities?

USD:CAD = 1.3045
EUR:CAD = 1.58588
A)
0.1774.
B)
1.2157.
C)
0.8226.



Recall that for a no arbitrage opportunity to exist the following relationship must hold:

(FC1/DC) × (DC/FC2) × (FC2/FC1) = 1

If the USD = FC1 and CAD = FC2, then we must first invert EUR:CAD = 1.58588 to arrive at CAD:EUR = 0.630564. Next we solve for:

(FC1/DC) × 0.630564 × 1.3045 = 1
(FC1/DC) = [1/(0.630564 × 1.3045)] = 1.2157

Of course, the easiest way to answer this question is to divide EUR:CAD = 1.58588 by USD:CAD = 1.3045 which is equal to EUR:USD or 1.2157.

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